Kerala-SET-2023

1. In Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy theory, the first level needs are called:
A) Psychological needs B) Physiological needs
C) Social needs D) Esteem needs

2. Who among the following is primarily associated with the Hawthorne experiments?
A) Elton Mayo B) B. F. Skinner
C) Henri Fayol D) F.W. Taylor

3. Which among the following cannot be delegated?
A) Authority B) Responsibility
C) Accountability D) None of these

4. The anticipated environment in which plans are expected to operate is called:
A) Key factor B) Business environment
C) Planning premises D) Rolling plan

5. Who among the following described the confusion caused by the different schools of
management thought as ‘management theory jungle’?
A) George R. Terry B) Peter F. Drucker
C) Sigmond Freud D) Harold Koontz

6. Which of the following describes a basic management function that includes building an
effective work climate and creating opportunity for motivation, supervising, scheduling, and
disciplining?
A) Planning B) Organising C) Staffing D) Directing

7. Which of the following is a characteristic of Organization Development?
A) Systematic approach
B) Goal oriented
C) Grounded in solid research & theory
D) All of these

8. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
I. Bureaucracy is characterized by hierarchy and fixed rules
II. Taylor divided the entire work into ‘planning’ and ‘doing’
A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false

9. Which of the following is a barrier to effective communication?
A) Gender and cultural differences B) Information filtering
C) Unclear semantics D) All of these

10. Which motivation theory describes motivation as the product of expectancy, valency and
instrumentality?
A) Equity theory B) Herzberg’s two factor theory
C) Vroom’s theory D) Alderfer’s ERG theory

11. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
I. Leaders focus more on implementation oriented, short to mid-term predictable tasks
and technical detail.
II. Managers are more concerned with enterprise-wide, strategic and value added roles
and competencies.
A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false

12. An attempt to enhance employee motivation by changing work both horizontally and
vertically is called:
A) Job enrichment B) Job enlargement
C) Job extension D) Job rotation

13. Which among the following is NOT one of the forces in Porter’s Five Forces Model?
A) Potential entry of new competitors
B) Bargaining power of suppliers
C) Agreement among competing firms
D) Potential development of substitute products

14. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the matrix structure?
A) Many channels of communication
B) Duplication of financial resources
C) Facilitates use of specialized personnel
D) Project objectives are clear

15. Specific courses of action which permits very little flexibility and freedom of interpretation
are called:
A) Procedures B) Rules C) Policies D) All of these

16. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
I. Structure can and does influence strategy.
II. Structure can shape the choice of strategies.
A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false

17. Restructuring is also known as:
A) Downsizing B) Rightsizing
C) Delayering D) All of these

18. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
I. Differentiation does not guarantee competitive advantage.
II. A primary reason for pursuing forward integration strategy is to gain low cost
leadership benefits.
A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false

19. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Functional Organisational Structure?
A) Allows for rapid decision making
B) Accountability forced to the top
C) Minimises need for elaborate control system
D) Maximises career development

20. Which of the following is a benefit of having a clear vision and mission?
A) Provide direction
B) Achieve higher organizational performance
C) Achieve clarity of purpose
D) All of these

21. Which of the following is a component of the micro environment of business?
A) Special Interest Groups B) Suppliers
C) Labour Unions D) All of these

22. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
I. Removal of Quantitative Restrictions does not mean duty free imports.
II. GATT was replaced by WTO.
A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false

23. A rise in FDI would bring in:
A) Better technology B) Increased productivity
C) More employment D) All of these

24. Economic planning is an essential feature of
A) Capitalist Economy B) Socialist Economy
C) Mixed Economy D) Dual Economy

25. The integration of economies, industries, markets, cultures and policy making around the
world is called:
A) Liberalisation B) Globalisation C) Privatisation D) All of these

26. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
I. Quantitative restrictions are imposed by countries primarily to limit imports.
II. WTO covers trade in services and trade related aspects of intellectual property.
A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false

27. Which among the following is the objective of disinvestment?
A) To reduce fiscal deficit
B) To improve public finances
C) To reduce financial burden on the government
D) All of these

28. Which of the following is NOT a feature of mixed economy?
A) Classless society B) Dual objectives
C) Existence of economic planning D) Price mechanism

29. Which of the five year plan was based on the P. C. Mahalanobis model?
A) First five year plan
B) Second five year plan
C) Both first and second five year plans
D) None of these

30. Which of the following is NOT a dimension of Human Development Index?
A) Knowledge B) Standard of living
C) Social status D) Life expectancy

31. The structural reforms carried out in the country as part of macroeconomic reforms focused
on which of the following areas?
A) Financial sector B) Foreign trade and investment
C) Industrial licensing and regulation D) All of these

32. Human Development Index is prepared by which agency?
A) IMF B) World bank C) UNDP D) ADB

33. The total money value of all newly produced final goods and services in an economy in a
given year is called:
A) GDP B) GNI C) GNP D) GCC

34 Which among the following is a reason for promoting balanced regional development?
A) To promote large employment opportunities
B) To maintain political stability
C) To develop and conserve resources
D) All of these

35 Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian economy?
A) Chronic unemployment B) Disguised employment
C) Underemployment D) Full employment

36 Which of the following institutions was replaced by NITI Aayog?
A) Planning Board B) Planning Commission
C) Ministry of Planning D) National Sample Survey Organisation

37 Integration in MIS is achieved by means of:
A) Decision making B) Models
C) DBMS D) Managers

38 State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
I. Physical data layout is best represented by internal schema.
II. Overall logical data description is best represented by external schema.
A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false

39. Match the following:
a Executive Support System 1 System concept
b Black box 2 Tactical level
c Programmable decisions 3 Planning
d. Cognitive Process 4 Structured
A) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1 B) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
C) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2 D) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3

40 Characteristics of interest about data are termed as:

A) Entity B) Tuple C) Attribute D) Record

41. The assumption that the business will continue for a long time to come and it is not likely to
be liquidated in the near future is called:
A) Separate entity concept B) Accounting period concept
C) Money measurement concept D) Going concern concept

42. The phenomenon of a company issuing its shares at a value higher than its face value is
called:
A) Issue of shares at face value B) Issue of shares at a discount
C) Issue of shares at a premium D) None of these

43. IFRS is the acronym for:
A) Indian Financial Reporting Standards
B) Industrial Financial Reporting Society
C) International Financial Reporting Standards
D) Instant Funds Reporting Standards

44. Karthik and Co issued 20,000 debentures of ` 100 each at a discount of 4% redeemable after
5 years at a premium of 6%. Loss on issue of debentures will be
A) ` 1, 20,000 B) ` 3, 20,000 C) ` 2, 00,000 D) ` 80,000

45. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
I. A company may purchase its own debentures.
II. Debenture holders are not members of the company.
A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false

46. Two companies A Ltd and B Ltd go into liquidation to form a new company. It is a case of:
A) Absorption B) External reconstruction
C) Amalgamation D) All of these

47. Break-up value of a share can be determined by which of the following methods?
A) Net assets method B) Yield method
C) Stock exchange quotation D) NPV method

48. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
I. A new company need not be formed in case of external reconstruction.
II. A new company has to be formed in the case of absorption.
A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false

49. Share premium money can be used for:
A) Payment of dividend B) Writing off goodwill
C) Issue of fully paid bonus shares D) All of these

50. If a share of ` 10, on which ` 6 has been paid, it can be reissued at the minimum price of:
A) ` 6 per share B) ` 4 per share
C) ` 10 per share D) None of these

51. What is the object of preparing a Trial balance?
A) To know the assets and liabilities of the firm
B) To check the arithmetical accuracy of the accounting entries
C) To find out the working capital deployed
D) None of these

52. Which of the following best describes single entry system?
A) Only debit aspect of each transaction is recorded
B) Only credit aspect of each transaction is recorded
C) Any one aspect of some transactions and both aspects of some transactions
D) One aspect of some transactions, both aspects of some transactions, while some
transactions are left unrecorded

53. ‘Discount on issue of shares’ belongs to which class of assets?
A) Current assets B) Contingent assets
C) Liquid assets D) Fictitious assets

54. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
I. Capital expenditure is incurred for acquiring a new fixed asset.
II. Revenue expenditure is incurred for maintaining the existing fixed assets.
A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false

  1. For what purpose is a Receipts and Payments Account prepared by a non-trading concern?
    A) To find out the profits
    B) To find out the cash balance
    C) To find out the asset position
    D) To know the creditors and debtors
  2. Cash discount is allowed on
    A) Purchases B) Sales C) Prompt payment D) All of these
  3. To which account are ‘Preliminary Expenses’ transferred by the vendor company at the time
    of absorption?
    A) Purchasing Company’s Account B) Realisation Account
    C) Equity Shareholders’ Account D) None of these
  4. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
    I. Reconstruction necessarily involves liquidation of the company concerned.
    II. The balance in the Share Premium Account can be transferred to Capital Reduction
    Account.
    A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
    C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false
  5. Dividends are usually paid on:
    A) Authorised capital B) Issued capital
    C) Subscribed capital D) Paid up capital
  6. A discrete distribution describing the results of a Bernoulli process is called:
    A) Normal Distribution B) Binomial Distribution
    C) Poisson Distribution D) None of these
  1. Which among the following combinations are tests designed to test the equality of more than
    two means?
    A) Chi-square & t test
    B) Z test & Paired t test
    C) ANOVA & Kruskal Wallis test
    D) Mann- Whitney U test & Kolmogrov Smrinov test
  2. Which among the following describes a range of values within which a population parameter
    is likely to lie?
    A) Interval estimate B) Probability distribution
    C) Sampling error D) None of these
  3. News boy problem is related to
    A) Queuing problem B) Inventory problem
    C) Replacement problem D) Linear Programming Problem
  4. Probabilities revised using Bayes theorem is also known as:
    A) Inverse probability B) Posterior probability
    C) Prior probability D) Both A and B
  5. The Poisson approximation to the binomial distribution will hold good in which of the
    following cases?
    A) n is less than or equal to 30 and p is less than or equal to 0.05
    B) n is less than or equal to 30 and p is greater than or equal to 0.05
    C) n is greater than or equal to 30 and p is greater than or equal to 0.05
    D) n is greater than or equal to 30 and p is less than or equal to 0.05
  6. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
    I. Internal validity of an experiment deals with the question of generalising the results of
    the experiment.
    II. History is a factor that affects the internal validity of an experiment.
    A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
    C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false
  7. Match the following:
    a. Longitudinal design 1. Descriptive design
    b. Solomons four group design 2. True experimental design
    c. One shot case study 3. Executive summary
    d. Research abstract 4. Quasi experimental design
    A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4 B) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
    C) a-3, b-2, c-4,d-1 D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
  8. The list of all the sources consulted by the researcher for conducting the research study is
    called:
    A) Footnotes B) Bibliography C) References D) All of these
  1. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
    I. Hypotheses is essential in every research study
    II. If a problem is well defined, the solution becomes evident
    A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
    C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false
  2. Which of the following is used in field experiments to isolate the effect of extraneous factors?
    A) Experimental group B) Control group
    C) Randomisation D) None of these
  3. Which among the following is an attitude measurement scale?
    A) Ordinal scale B) Likert scale
    C) Ratio scale D) None of these
  4. Which among the following criteria is used for decision making under risk?
    A) Hurwicz criterion B) EOL criterion
    C) Minimax criterion D) Maximax criterion
  5. For what purpose is Fulkerson’s rule used?
    A) Numbering events in a network
    B) Overcoming degeneracy in transportation problem
    C) Checking an assignment problem for optimality
    D) For taking decisions under uncertainty
  6. State whether the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE
    I. Assignment problem is solved in iterations.
    II. Transportation technique can also be used for solving maximization problems.
    A) I and II are true B) I is true and II is false
    C) I is false and II is true D) I and II are false
  7. Match the following:
    a. Network analysis 1. Vogel’s Approximation Method
    b. Decision problem 2. Feasible region
    c. Transportation problem 3. Floats
    d. Linear Programming Problem 4. Expected Monetary Value
    A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4 B) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
    C) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1 D) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
  8. —— approach involves delivering parts and materials as needed rather than being stockpiled
    A) JIT B) MBO C) PERT D) CAD-CAM
  9. In which type of constraint in an LPP is a surplus variable introduced?
    A) Greater than or equal to type B) Less than or equal to type
    C) Equal to type D) None of these