Kerala-SET-2023

1. ‘Separation of Planning and Doing’ is one of the features of
A) Administrative Management
B) Scientific Management
C) Modern Management
D) Bureaucracy

2. Among the following who is not a follower of Scientific Management Thought
A) Elton Mayo B) Carl George Berth
C) Henry Gantt D) Lillian Gillbreth

3. The first person to identify the six major qualities of manager is
A) Max Weber B) Oliver Sheldon
C) Henry Fayol D) F.W. Taylor

4. Relay Assembly Test Room Experiments aimed to
A) Find out the effect of illumination on productivity of workers
B) Find out the effect of changes in working hours and working conditions on
productivity
C) Find out the workers attitudes and sentiments
D) Find out social aspect of work organisation

5. In MBO, “KRA” denotes:
A) Knowledge, Remuneration and Attitude towards objectives
B) Key Reward Agents
C) Key Result Areas
D) Keeping Restricted Aims

6. Psychoanalytical theory of personality is based on
A) Freudian Concept of unconscious nature of mind
B) Ericson’s different stages
C) Developmental Milestones
D) Intelligence Quotient

7. Which one of the following is not a theory of learning
A) Expectancy Theory
B) Social Learning Theory
C) Classical Conditioning Theory
D) Operant Conditioning Theory

8. Job enrichment is associated with
A) Horizontal loading to increase workforce flexibility
B) Increase the number of tasks associated with a particular job
C) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility and challenges at work
D) None of the above

9. Hamel and Prahalad are exponents of:
A) Strategic competence B) Threshold competence
C) Competitive Advantage D) Core Competence

10. A Conglomerate means
A) Takes up related activities within a broader industry situation
B) Concentric diversification strategy
C) Takes up activities which are unrelated to core business
D) Stability strategy

11. The Balanced Scorecard Approach was developed by
A) R.B. Robinson B) Kaplan and Norton
C) G. Johnson D) K. Scholes

12. Six Sigma Approach is meant for
A) Measuring Efficiency Summative
B) Tool for Analysis and Continuous Improvement of Corporate Performance
C) A quantitative tool in management
D) None of the above

13. Statement 1: Critical Success Factors helps in analyzing suitability of a strategy
Statement 2: CSF are underlying core competencies in specific activities
A) Statement 1 is true and 2 is false
B) Statement 2 is true and 1 is false
C) Both statements are true
D) Both statements are false

14. The factors that creates threats and opportunities to Business organization is
A) Suppliers and Customers B) Internal Environment
C) Macro Environment D) Micro Enviornment

15. Globalisation is the term commonly used to describe the process of removal of
restriction on
A) Foreign Trade B) Investment
C) Both A and B D) None of the above

16. Statement 1 : Macro environmental forces are external and uncontrollable
Statement II: Macro environment consists of suppliers, customers and creditors
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
D) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true

17. World bank classifies India as
A) Upper-Middle Income Economy
B) Lower-Middle Income Economy
C) High Income Economy
D) Low Income Economy

18. Arrange the following sectors from highest to lowest, based on contribution to Indian GDP
A) Agriculture, Manufacturing, Services
B) Manufacturing, Agriculture, Services
C) Agriculture, Services, Manufacturing
D) Services, Manufacturing, Agriculture

19. Statement 1: National Income is the money value of final goods and services
Statement2: Net National Product = GNP-Depreciation
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) Statement 1 is true and 2 is false
D) Statement 1 is false and 2 is true

20. Match the following:
List-I                                                                    List -II
1. Third Five Year plan                                     a) 1951-56
2. Seventh Five Year Plan                                b) 2002-07
3. Tenth Five Year Plan                                    c) 1961-66
d) 1985-90

A) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b

B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d

C) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b

D) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c

21. What are three key components of WTO?
A) A Senete, A Judiciary and A Directorate
B) An Executive apparatus, A Legislative Apparatus, An Enforcement Apparatus
C) Board of Governers, Assembly of Member Countries, A Steering Committee
D) A Trade Commission, A dispute settlement body and Council of Ministers

22. If a German manufacturer of household appliances wants to take advantage of cheap
labour in India, which of the following actions will not serve the purpose?
A) Build a manufacturing subsidiary in India, and employ Indian workers
B) Build a plant in India and send all German workers there
C) License an Indian firm to produce its products under its own label
D) Contract an Indian firm to do some of the processing for the manufacturer

23. Which of the following are regarded as the main aims of World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
a) To eliminate discrimination in World Trade
b) To provide financial assistance to member countries with debt
c) To reduce tariff barriers
d) To help and give preferences to small economies
A) a and c B) a and b C) c and b D) c and d

24. The National Highway projects contracted out by NHAI under PPP mode is an
example of
A) LOT B) BOOT C) BOT D) DBFO

25. GUI means
A) Graphical Useful Image B) Graphical User Interchange
C) Graphical User Interface D) None of these

26. Data about data is normally termed as
A) Directory B) Meta data C) Data Bank D) None of these

27. Distinction between an expenditure whose benefits lasts over a  long period and another expenditure whose benefits lasts for a short period say within one year is made under
which of the following concepts?
A) Accounting Period B) Money Measurement Concept
C) Going Concern Concept D) Separate Entity Concept

28. Anticipate no profit but provide for all losses is based on
A) Materiality Principle B) Matching Principle
C) Conservatism Principle D) Disclosure Principle

29. The global key professional accounting body is
A) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
B) International Accounting Standards Committee
C) International Accounting Standards Board
D) Financial Accounting Standards Board

30. Statement 1: A trial balance agreement indicates arithmetical accuracy in accounting
Statement 2: Agreement in trial balance is due to the recording of both debit and credit
aspect of each and every transactions
A) Statement 1 is true and 2 is false
B) Statement 1 is false and 2 is true
C) Both are false
D) Both are true

31. Assuming no returns outwards or carriage inwards, Cost of Goods Sold is
A) Opening Stock plus Purchases Plus Closing Stock
B) Purchases less Closing Stock Less Opening Stock
C) Sales minus Gross Profit
D) None of these

32. If Gross Profit is Rs.6500, Carriage outwards Rs.200; Carriage inwards Rs.300; Rent
Received Rs.500 and Other Expenses Rs. 3000. Find Net Proft
A) Rs.2500/- B) Rs.3800/- C) Rs.4100/- D) Rs.3300/-

33. Statement 1 : A Balance Sheet is a statement of Financial Performance of a Business
Statement 2 : A Balance sheet shows the Financial Position of a firm
A) Statements 1 and 2 are true
B) Statement 1 is true and 2 is false
C) Statement 1 is false and 2 is true
D) Both are false

34. Under the diminishing balance method, depreciation is calculated on
A) Original Value B) Market Value
C) Written down value D) Scrap Value

35. Amortisation applies to
A) Fixed Assets B) Current Assets
C) Intangible Assets D) Wasting Assets

36. The Principle of Separate Legal Entity for a Company is called the Principle of
A) Existence B) Corporate Veil
C) Prudence D) Materiality

37. When shares are issued to promoters for the services rendered by them it is debited to
A) Share Capital Account
B) Goodwill Account
C) Preliminary Expenses Account
D) None of these

38. Pre acquisition profit in subsidiary company is considered as
A) Capital Profit B) Revenue Profit
C) Goodwill D) All of these

39. Which of the following Statements are True
Statement 1: Financial statements are only interim reports
Statement 2: Financial Statements are also known as annual Records
A) Statement 1 and 2 are true
B) Statement 1 is true and 2 is false
C) Statement 1 is false and 2 is true
D) Both are false

40. Statistical Inference is
A) Inductive inference B) Deductive inference
C) Objective inference D) Subjective inference

41. Type I error is the probability of
A) Accepting a true null hypothesis
B) Rejecting a true null hypothesis
C) Rejecting a false null hypothesis
D) Accepting a false null hypothesis

42. Match the following
List –I                                                                             List-II
1. Exploratory Research                       a) to portray accurately the characteristics of an entity
2. Diagnostic Research                         b) to assess the frequency with which something happens
3. Descriptive Research                        c) to gain familiarity with a phenomenon
A) 1-b;2-c;3-a                B) 1-c;2-b;3-a

C) 1-a;2-c; 3-b              D) 1-c; 2-a;3-b

43. Which of the following sequences of steps in research is scientific
A) Establishing relationship- hypothesis-problem identification-Analysis and
interpretation
B) Hypothesis-Objectives-Problem definition-Collection of Data-Analysis of data
C) Define the problem- Redefine the problem-Hypothesis formulation- Collection, Organisation and Evaluation- Drawing Inferences- Testing Hypothesis
D) Define problem- Identify the causal relationships- Analysis of dataHypothesis formulation and testing

44. Any numerical value calculated from the sample is called
A) Error B) Parameter C) Coefficient D) Statistic

45. The sampling technique under which the researcher ask the research participant to
suggest another potential research participant is
A) Cluster sampling B) Snowball Sampling
C) Quota Sampling D) Judgment sampling

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46. Principle of Replication in experimental research states to
A) Measure and eliminate the effect of extraneous variables
B) Random assignment to control extraneous variables
C) Conduct experiment repeatedly to ensure the reliability
D) None of these

47. Which of the following statements about the hypothesis testing is true
Statement 1 : If the p-value is greater than the significance level we fail to reject null
hypothesis
Statement 2 : The significance level equals (1- probability of Type I error)
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) Statement 1 is true and 2 is false
D) Statement 1 is false and 2 is true

48. Match the following
List- I                                                                        List-II
1. Judgement Sampling                                a) Projective Techniques
2. Parameter                                                   b) Non-probability sampling
3. TAT                                                               c) Population
A) 1-a; 2-c;3-b             B) 1-b; 2-c;3-a

C) 1-c;2-a;3-b              D) 1-a;2-b;3-c

49. The outcomes are equally likely in
A) Relative frequency Approach to probability
B) Subjective Approach to probability
C) Axiomatic Approach to probability
D) Classical Approach to probability

50. Which among the following is an alternate hypothesis for left tailed test?
A) µ = µ0 B) µ < µ0 C) µ >µ0 D) µ ≠ µ0

51. The likelihood of two events happening together
A) Conditional Probability B) Marginal Probability
C) Joint Probability D) Prior Probability

52. In transportation problem, optimal solution can be verified by using
A) Least Cost Method B) North West Corner Rule
C) VAM D) MODI method